"Since there really were no prophecies of a virgin-born, crucified, resurrected Messiah in the Old Testament, [the gospel writers and Christian apologists] had to twist and distort to give the appearance that Jesus was the long-awaited one."
The Challenge:
Simply & honestly answer these questions: WITHOUT taking anything out of context,(full context) mistranslating, or imposing a pre-conceived notion. (All chapter and verse numbers are according to Christian bibles.)
To Evangelical Christians, Messianic Jews and Hebrew-Christians to all…
Why does the subject of 2 Sam. 7.14 “commit iniquity,” if, according to Hebrews 1.5, this is Jesus?
Why does the speaker in Psalms 41.4 say, “I have sinned against Thee,” if, according to John 13.18, this is Jesus?
Why does the speaker in Psalms 69.5 mention his “folly” and his “wrongs” if, according to John 15.25, John 2.17, Romans 15.3, and John 19.28, this is Jesus?
Why is the speaker in Psalms 69.31 (who we have already established is Jesus) declaring that praise and thanksgiving will please God better than a sacrifice??????? Of all places for Jesus to bring this up (which would be strange enough in any event), isn’t this the strangest, right when he’s on the cross??????
Why does God, in Jer. 31:29-30, make a point of stressing that “everyone will die for his own iniquity” – immediately before introducing the new covenant, whereby Jesus will die for everyone else’s iniquity? Isn’t that a rather strange way for the “tutor to lead us to Christ?”
When does the new covenant of Jer. 31:31 come into effect? If it was 2,000 years ago, why hasn’t the first 3/4 of verse 34 happened yet?
Why will there be sin sacrifices when the messiah comes, when the New Testament is adamant that there won’t be? (Hebrews 9:28; Heb. 10:10,12,14,18; Ezekiel 3:18,19,21,22,25; Ezek.44: 27, 29; Ezek. 45:17,20,22,23,25)
Why is Torah law going forth from Zion in the messianic age, in the sight of all the nations of the world, instead of Jesus, if the law is a curse and Jesus has fulfilled and replaced it? (Isaiah 2.3, Micah 4.2)
Why are the Jews keeping (DOING) the Torah law in the messianic age, if it is a curse and Jesus has fulfilled and replaced it? (Ezek. 37.24)
Why is no one who is uncircumcised IN THE FLESH allowed to enter the temple in the messianic age, if “neither circumcision nor uncircumcision means anything,” according to Paul? (Gal.5.6, Ezek. 44.7) Whose opinion should I trust, Paul’s or God’s?
Why does “forever” have an expiration date in Christianity? (Romans 10.4; Ps. 119: 44, 111, 152, 160, 172, 142; Deut. 29.29)
How can Jesus be qualified to be the messiah through Davidic lineage if he did not have a human father? Can the “Holy Spirit” be of the seed of David?
How can Jesus be qualified to be the messiah through Davidic lineage, even through Joseph, if Joseph came through the cursed line of Jeconiah? (Jer. 22:28-30, Matt. 1.11,12)
How can Jesus be qualified to be the messiah through Davidic lineage, even through Mary, if she came from Nathan, the wrong son of David, as well as from the cursed line? (Luke 3:31, 1 Chron. 22:9,10, Luke 3:27)
How could both Matthew’s and Luke’s genealogies be correct, and divinely inspired, even if they are of two different people, if they diverge (at Nathan and Solomon) and then come back together (at Shealtiel)? How can two brothers have the same grandchildren???
Why don’t the genealogies in the New Testament agree with each other, or with 1 Chronicles 3, which came first and CANNOT be incorrect?
Why is Paul so anxious for you to not study the genealogies? (1 Tim.1:4, Titus 3:9-11)
Why is Hebrews 8.9 wrong about what God said in Jer. 31.32?
Why is Hebrews 10.5 wrong about what God said in Psalm 40.6?
Why is 2 Corinthians 3 wrong about what God said in Exodus 34.29-35?
Why is John 19.37 wrong about what God said in Zech 12.10?
Why are Romans 9.33 and 2 Pet. 2.8 wrong about what God said in Isaiah 28.16?
Why is Romans 10.6-8 wrong about what God said in Deut. 30.12-14? Why does it leave out Deut. 30.11, and the last half of verses 12, 13, and 14???
Why is Romans 11:26-27 wrong about what God said in Isaiah 59:20-21?
Why is Matt. 12.21 wrong about what God said in Isaiah 42.4? Why does he leave out what it really says – “He will not be disheartened or crushed until he has established justice in the earth”?
Why is Matt. 1.12 wrong about what God said in 1 Chron. 3.19?
Why is Matt. 2.6 wrong about what God said in Micah 5.2?
Why is Luke 4:18-19 wrong about what God said in Isaiah 61:1-2?
In Romans 9:24-26, why does Paul leave out the first part of Hosea 1.10, which tells us that the verses he is quoting (the second half of Hosea 1.10, and Hosea 2.23), refer to the sons of Israel?
Why does Matt. 2.15 leave out the first half of Hosea 11.1, which says that Israel is God’s son?
Where in the Hebrew scriptures is the verse, “And he shall be called a Nazarene,” quoted in Matthew 2.23?
How can it be possible that the holy and inspired men of the New Testament were so ignorant of the Hebrew scriptures?
Why doesn’t Jesus himself know his own scripture, if he’s God and he wrote it? (Math. 23.35; Zech 1.1,2; 2 Chron 24.20,21)
Why is Jesus wrong in Math. 5.43 about what God said in Lev. 19.18?
Why does Jesus change God’s law (Math. 5.32, Luke 16.18 – declaring every legally divorced woman an adulteress, and every man married to a legally divorced woman an adulterer), if “I did not come to abolish the law,” and “whoever annuls one of the least of these commandments, and so teaches others, shall be called least in the kingdom of heaven?” (Math. 5.17,19)
Why do most Christian translators lie about what God said in Hosea 14.2, and change His words, “take away all iniquity… that we may present our lips as bulls” (demonstrating that prayer substitutes for sacrifice) to “… the fruit of our lips?”
Why do Christians never mention verses like Hosea 14.2 or 1 Kings 8:44-52 or 2 Sam 12:13 or Lev. 5:11-13 or Ps. 32.5 or Isaiah 6.6-7 which demonstrate that one does not need a blood sacrifice to have their sins forgiven, or verses like Proverbs 21.3 or Psalms 40.6 or Hosea 6.6 or Psalms 69:30-31 or 1 Sam. 15.22 which say clearly that God actually PREFERS other methods of atonement to blood sacrifice, or Jeremiah 7:22-23 which goes so far as to say that God NEVER EVEN COMMANDED US ABOUT SACRIFICES???
Why are there numerous stories in the torah of people who sinned, and were forgiven through prayer and repentance – WITHOUT A SACRIFICE, such as David in 2 Sam 12:13, or the city of Nineveh in Jonah – and not a single story, ever, of someone who sinned and gave a sacrifice in order to be forgiven?
How can Jesus be both the high priest (per Paul in Hebrews), who comes from the tribe of Levi, and the messiah, who comes from the tribe of Judah?
How can Jesus be the Passover lamb for the gentiles, especially the uncircumcised, if outsiders were forbidden to partake of it? (Ex. 12:43,45,48)
Why is the New Testament so concerned about the laws of the paschal lamb when it comes to the 2nd half of Ex. 12.46 (see Jn. 19.36), but not at all concerned with these laws when it comes to Ex. 12: 3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,44, the first half of 46, or 48?
What good is Jesus as a sin sacrifice to the intentional sinner, since (with one exception, Lev. 6.2,3) the sin sacrifices were only for the unintentional sinner? (Lev. 4: 2,13,22,27; 5:15,18)
How can Zech. 12.10 be referring to Jesus’ crucifixion, as John 19.37 says it is, when Zechariah is clearly describing an end-time apocalyptic war that has not yet taken place?
How can Zechariah be making a “dual” prophecy, when according to the Christians, this passage refers to God being pierced? Is he going to be pierced again when he returns in glory?
Christians counter that Jesus will fulfill these in the Second Coming, but Jewish sources show that the Messiah will fulfill the prophecies outright, and no concept of a second coming exists.
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